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Originally Posted by AJ1356
The reason I said Khanjar is a Persian word is because it is mentioned in Shahnameh, which was written over 1000 years ago and was the first book post Islam that was written strictly in Persian without any Arabic words but 2. It reffers to a short knife, unlike the middle eastern khanjars of today. As far is as pronounciation, we pronounce it as it is written with KH not K and pronouncing the R not RR.
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Salaams AJ1356 ~ I think that is entirely possible and Persia not only had a strategic interest after Islam in the region mainly through imposition of taxes in some coastal areas but had a significant presence in Rostaq and Bahla (They built the Bahla Fort pre Islam) in the Interior. I see no reason why it could not have been originally a Persian word. Seems reasonable to me.
Regards,
Ibrahiim al Balooshi.