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Old 2nd September 2009, 10:42 PM   #25
pallas
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Join Date: Oct 2008
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Quote:
Originally Posted by fearn
Hi Celtan,

The weird part, come to think of it, is disease. There's this theory out there that the Americas were largely depopulated in the 16th Century by epidemic diseases introduced from Europe. Actually, it's a bit more than a theory...

So...I guess everyone before the Conquistadors who made it to America was perfectly healthy. Now there's a weird thought. Did ships get that much faster after 1492? Fast enough, I mean, to bring infectious people to the New World.

F

i agree with the the general lack of old world illness as evidence of unsustained precolumbian (actually "pre norse-scandanavian") contact between the new and old worlds, however was there not a general lack of large damaging plagues/waves of diseases in europe before the 1200's? i know that they occured here and there (the plauge that afflicted the huns in italy and that which afflicted byzantine troops of justinian in byzantium as examples) but they dident seem to be as widespread or as devastating as those that swept over europe in the 12-1300s. could the vikings/celts and/or other european visitors have been largely communacable-disease free at the time they landed? im excluding STDS of course as theyve always been present in most world populations..
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