Thread: Deccan tulwar
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Old 29th June 2022, 04:28 PM   #15
Mercenary
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Join Date: Apr 2011
Location: Moscow, Russia
Posts: 421
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ariel View Post
Professionalism requires full-time immersion in the subject, adherence to the facts, ability to admit one's errors and respect for the real "gurus". Without the first, one is just a dilettante, but lack of the latter 3 characteristics implies fakery and arrogance that are incompatible with true professionalism.
Quote:
Originally Posted by ariel View Post
One is entitled to his opinions, so please feel free to present them. However, they better be based on facts to be taken seriously.
I agree with you completely.But I'm still trying to understand the quote you provided:
Quote:
According to Simon Digby, the evidence given by Fakr-i-Mudabbir in Delhi in the early thirteenth century suggests "a trade in arms extending through the medieval Islamic world from Europe to China" with European blades usually being considered sharper and better than Indian ones
Is it correct?

So I have a question. How from the text of the source, which clearly says that of all the existing swords, the best are Indian ones, someone brings out that the best are European (!) and at the same time you add "including English"? The manuscript told about Firangi swords, and there is no mention of "English swords".

But Russian swords are mentioned there (Rusi swords). Then can I conclude, if the rules of science are the same for everyone, that Russian swords were known in India of the 13th century (the author of the manuscript testifies that all the swords he mentioned are good enough), and that in the 13th century a trade of Russian swords was extending through the medieval Islamic world from Europe to China?
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Last edited by Mercenary; 29th June 2022 at 04:47 PM.
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