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Originally Posted by Kamil
Tom,
I know that Greek and English are related to each other and I have chosen this example absolutely intentionally. Ancient Egyptian is related to Arabic and Hebrew in the same way, that means there is no close relationship between them.
The concept of "correct spelling" is maybe provincial. However this spelling is commonly accepted among Egyptologists, not only European, but also American ones. It is not an invention of this or that Egyptologist; the consonant root of a word was actually written in hieroglyphs.
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The spelling is provincial; from the province of Egypt; clear if not agreed with? The rest is imitation. I actually often spell kopsh with a "kh", as I've seen it spelled that way, but then I've seen it spelled a variety of ways; I hadn't realized it was the consonants you were on about; I thought you were complaining of my vowels. Perhaps most importantly, if I'm not talking to a computer or bureaucracy, I really have little (to no) interest in or respect for the divisive/elitist concept of "correct spelling", which, as I've said, is tied pretty tightly to time, place, culture, social standing, etc.; for example, in Greek copis seems to have been/to be a "correct spelling" of very likely the same word, though I encounter primarily "machaira"/"mahaira" from there these days; I remain unconfronted with any evidence that this is the item properly called a machaira in ancient days, BTW.......isn't machaira a word for what in US would be called a knife, rather than a sword or dagger, in modern Greek?